The format is the same as the midterm. Final Paper Questions1: Democracy and InequalityDrawing on Capital in the 21st. The format is the same as the midterm. Final Paper Questions1: Democracy and InequalityDrawing on Capital in the 21st.
FUNDING REQUEST MEMO Funding Request Memo To : From : Date :
FUNDING REQUEST MEMO
Funding Request Memo
To :
From :
Date :
CC :
Nordstrom Inc is writing to request for funding for its expansion program. As is the case, the company is one of the leading retailers in the fashion industry. Over the years, it has had the pride in providing excellent services in the sale of compelling clothes, shoes, and other accessories that are befitting for all groups of people. To provide a little background, the company was started in 1991 as a small shop that was selling shoes in Seattle. Over the years, through proper planning, excellent service delivery, and active leadership, the organization has experienced a massive growth and is today considered to be one the leading fashion retailers both in America and Canada. Today, the company has over three hundred outlets serving millions of customers in both some forty American states and Canada. Besides, the company has a presence in over ninety-six countries through online services. Concerning its legal existence, the company is registered and trades publicly on the New York Securities Exchange (NYSE).
In the recent past, the company has discovered that it has a huge market base in India. Over the last year alone, the company received over one mission orders from Indian through its online platforms. The enthusiasms with which the Indians have responded to the services of the company have prompted the management to consider and make the decision to move and start operating in the country. One of the primary reasons that necessitated this reason is the fact that opening warehouses in the country would tremendously improve service delivery to the customers in the regions. At the moment, the institution is experiencing logistical nightmares since at times the items may fail to reach the intended destinations in time or even get damaged on the way.
According to the United Nations estimates, the current population of India is more than one billion and three hundred million people. Additionally, the country is currently undergoing political reforms that have provided the country with the right atmosphere for business. Therefore, the fact that the company has a customer base in the country, coupled up with the huge population and the current political environments makes India an ideal choice for the expansion destination of Nordstrom. Additionally, India is at the moment experiencing favorable economic growth, and projections indicate that the economic situation in the country will only get better.
If there is a need for more information than already provided, the company website, investor.nordstrom.com/ would be a useful source. The site provides in-depth information on all the activities of the company and all the investment opportunities. It indicates all the growth projections for the near future as well as analyzing the benefits that would be obtained from investing in the company.
Market Realist is another source of information to be considered. It is a website that tracks the performance of enterprises in various industries. In this case, the Market Realist would provide the relevant information regarding the industry and the position of the firm. Besides, the website tracks the growth history of the organization and provides an analysis of the nature of competition in the market. It would be a useful source in making conclusions whether the firm is worth the investment or not.[supanova_question]
prepare the capitalization
The format is the same as the midterm. Final Paper Questions1: Democracy and InequalityDrawing on Capital in the 21st Mindy Esquivel owns a bakery that serves both commercial and retail customers. The bakery is located in the southernmost area of a large metropolitan city. The business has enjoyed great success and customers frequently ask Mindy if she will be opening a bakery more toward the center of the city. Evidently, they are not enjoying the long drive to her current location. After hearing this for several years, she began a search for a site to build the new bakery. Prior to starting the project, Mindy contacted you as her CPA to determine a cost capitalization policy. Mindy asks that the policy include at what point, and which costs may be capitalized as part of the new-build construction project. She has provided a list of costs she knows will be incurred so be sure to address each of them.
Architect fees
Labor and materials used in construction
Mindy’s own salaried project manager, Ray, who will oversee construction (hired for this project only)
Preliminary site selection costs including labor hours incurred by Ray
External legal fees related to property acquisition, construction contract review, etc.
Costs to paint the new bakery
Any other costs she might incur during this new-build construction project
No need to do a memo for this – just prepare the capitalization policy for her.
Be sure to cite appropriate substantial authority. Also, you might find PwC’s guidebook “Property, Plant, [supanova_question]
Term Paper Museums are found all over the world. Museums are a
Term Paper
Museums are found all over the world. Museums are a place where exhibits are found, showcasing the present and the past. Museums can have artifacts, fossils, live exhibits, photographs, and art. There is no limit to what a museum can teach us.
Museums are important for many reasons. According to Fortey, “I believe profoundly in the importance of museums; I would go as far as to say that you can judge a society by the quality of its museums. “ In an article in the Guardian, “ natural history collections play a vital role in our understanding of biodiversity, evolution, population genetics and the environmental impacts of climate change, pesticide use and so on.” Colleen Leth states that “Museums are a means of dissipating ignorance and promoting tolerance.” She also explains why Museums are so important “For only by valuing and protecting the remains of where we have come from, will we know where we are going. For only by valuing and protecting the remains of where we have come from, will we know where we are going.”
I think that the greatest benefit in having Museums is that they are our window to the past. Museums are so important because we can see the past from all over the world. Art depicts how the artist and people around the artist’s world are living. The Van Gogh Museum showed how important art is and the Artist in Museums. In visiting the Van Gogh, one gets a glimpse of the Artist, Van Gogh and the world he lived in. We got a better understanding of him and his art.
Museums give us a look into the past and help us shape our future. Museums also give us a kind of living history, since we lose the real memory and actuality of things as time passes. The Smithsonian Natural History Museum and The Museum of Voting Rights are prime examples of why we need Museums to remember our history. According to an article in the Huffington Post by Wages, “museums ensure understanding and appreciation for various groups and cultures. They promote better understanding of our collective heritage and foster dialogue, curiosity and self-reflection.” Museums can tell us about the past living species and what the climate was like through specimen analysis.
Additionally, Museums give us investigate what fauna and extinct animals looked like. From fossils and plant materials, we can see what life may have been like and what animals and plants were in the past. We can also see what may have been the cause of their extinction. Museums also have access to researchers that can piece together stories and histories. We can know and see what early man looked like because of Museum Researchers being able to study ancient pathologies and piece together fossils. Museums show us the past, the good and the bad, and help use to change our mistakes.
How do Museums fit into the Modern World?
I think that Museums effectively reach the public currently via social media and the internet. Many people do not or cannot travel and therefore virtual visits allow for all to be able to have the Museum experience. I think that making the Museums more inviting and community- friendly will attract more visitors either virtually or in person. Young people must want to go and they like a gathering place as well as a cultural experience.
Through social media advertising and possible podcasts, younger people may be interested in visiting the Museums. If exhibits and lectures and current and made interesting, then people will want to come. The old notion that museums are boring needs to change.
Because times have changed, wording within exhibits and the Museums should be re-evaluated to make sure they are politically correct. According to the Huffington Post, Museums should “take a fresh look at their own environment and the overt and subtle signals they might send about the categories in which they place visitors, potentially signaling who is welcome and not welcome.” Museums do not want to have potentially rude or offensive signage.
Another way for outreach is through clubs and Societies. As Fortey mentions in Chapter 5, The Linnean Society and Geological Society may be a way to bring people from all over the world together with a common interest. Museums can become a place for community and gatherings. According to Fortey, in Chapter 4, inviting the public to lectures and to see special collections also helps to draw interest in Museums. The lure of an exciting exhibit, a traveling exhibit. According to Fortey, “Museums have no political power, but they do have the possibility of influencing the political process. This is a complete change from their role in the early days of collecting and hoarding the world to one of using the collections as an archive for a changing world. This role is not merely scientifically important, but it is also a cultural necessity.”
Drawbacks of Museums/Ethical Issues?
Museums can pose questions and different interpretations. As Fortey mentions, “A life accumulates a collection: of people, work and perplexities. We are all our own curators. ” Social change also brings the potential for considerable threats, particularly if focus shifts away from long-term collections care, access and development. Museums can have ethical issues. According to Richard Fortey, the most significant disadvantage or ethical quandary for museums is their scientific credibility. Fotrey explains how some amateur collectors were deceitful about their collections, and how some artifacts were even stolen and portrayed as real findings, only to be discovered as fake.
Communities Investing in Museums:
According to Museum Next, Museums can create unity on both social and political levels. Museums can also bring people to her through public events, workshops, and lectures. Through advances in technology museums more accessible than ever. For those who might struggle to attend an institution in person, museums and galleries are increasingly sharing their collections online. By investing in Museums, they communities may bring people together. It can be a great place to teach and learn about each other’s differences.
Individuals Investing in Museums:
Individuals can invest in Museums and help to foster education and relationships. By going to a museum and paying the entrance fee or purchasing something from the Museum, you are investing in the Museum. Museums are so important to our learning and growth. Individuals can have an impact.
Companies Investing in Museums:
Companies investing in museums show that they have a concern and care for society. By companies investing in museums exhibits, events and upgrades, they are showing that they understand how important the roles of museums are in society. This would be a socially responsible investment.
MUSEUM ETHICS. Harvard Law School. (n.d.). http://www.law.harvard.edu/faculty/martin/art_law/museum_ethics.html.
Natural history collections –- why are they relevant? https://www.theguardian.com/science/punctuated-equilibrium/2011/apr/12/2. (n.d.).
Seeing the Past as Present: Why Museums Matter. News from Tauck Ritzau Innovative Philanthropy. (n.d.). http://tripgiving.org/news/seeing-the-past-as-present-why-museums-matter-2/.
Falk, J. H., & Dierking, L. D. (2018). Learning from museums. In Learning from Museums (pp. 118–140). essay, Rowman & Littlefield.
Why we need museums now more than ever. MuseumNext. (2021, March 14). https://www.museumnext.com/article/why-we-need-museums-now-more-than-ever/.
Gazi, A. (2014, May 8). Journal of Conservation and Museum Studies. https://www.jcms-journal.com/articles/10.5334/jcms.1021213/.
MUSEUM ETHICS. Harvard Law School. (n.d.). http://www.law.harvard.edu/faculty/martin/art_law/museum_ethics.html.
Natural history collections –- why are they relevant? https://www.theguardian.com/science/punctuated-equilibrium/2011/apr/12/2. (n.d.).
Fortey, R. A. (2009). Dry storeroom no. 1: the secret life of the Natural History Museum (pp. 1–115). story, Vintage Books.
The Role of the Museum in Society. https://maltwood.uvic.ca/cam/activities/past_conferences/1999conf/CAM’99- mmanuelArinze.GuyanaFinal.pdf. (n.d.).
The Role of Museums in Wages, J. (2017, December 7). Why Museums Are Important. HuffPost. . https://www.huffpost.com/entry/why-museums-are-important_b_6355710#:~:text=Museumsensureunderstandingandappreciation,curiosityandselfreflection.&text=Museumsarebothnecessaryandrelevanttoday
The Role of the Museum in
Wages, J. (2017, December 7). Why Museums Are Important. HuffPost. https://www.huffpost.com/entry/why-museums-are-important_b_6355710#:~:text=Museumsensureunderstandingandappreciation,curiosityandselfreflection.&text=Museumsarebothnecessaryandrelevanttoday.
https://www.huffpost.com/entry/9-things-museums-can-improve_n_56f05e90e4b09bf44a9e2806#:~:text=Takeintoaccountthephysicalarchitectureandaccessibility,fullauditoftheirphysicalanddigitalofferings. (n.d.). essay.[supanova_question]
Non-Profit Executive Compensation Tyesha Brooks OL-620 June 20, 2021 Summary It is
Non-Profit Executive Compensation
Tyesha Brooks
OL-620
June 20, 2021
Summary
It is perpetually essential to concentrate on Nonprofit Executive Compensation in any corporation or business. When corporations invest money in nonprofit charities, they need to make sure they contribute to charities. Overcompensating executives can drive a decrease in contributions, volunteer resources, and, in challenging circumstances, an organization could lose its nonprofit standing. However, some advantages and disadvantages may occur in the process. This essay will present some benefits for a nonprofit organization that pays executive similarity to a for-profit business and the failings of how organizations potentially lose out on their profit donations.
The Craig Johnson case study explains that for-profit and nonprofit sectors have recently been accused of overcompensating their executives with unusual rewards. As a result, questions have been raised, especially for nonprofit organizations increasing their revenues from the goodwill in the form of charities, grants, and fundraisers. Johnson cites instances where many nonprofit organizations are overly paid and use outrageous amounts of money for things such as travel, meals, and paid leave (Johnson, 2016). Such instances lead to the moral question of whether money donated to help the poor, offer education or medical services, and other social benefits should be used to finance the extravagant lives of the directors.
As a result, the Internal Revenue Service has tightened restrictions on nonprofits. They are now required to reveal executive salaries that surpass $150,000 and disclose amounts spent in allowances and other services such as travel and security (Johnson, 2016). Johnson also notes that times are changing, and for-profit organizations adopt a traditional business model that Prompts them to operate on the same scale as for-profit corporations (Johnson, 2016). Aware of these changes, this paper looks into some of the advantages and disadvantages of various compensation strategies used by a not-for-profit organization.
Advantages
There are several matters to consider in any organization, including for-profit or nonprofit, when it comes to attracting and retaining competent workers. Both aspire to be successful and thrive by providing a product or service that others need. Remuneration of employees, managers, and executives is a fundamental process to ensure motivation to keep up the excellent performance; it is also a way to appreciate their hard work. Therefore, ensuring that the not-for-profit organization executives receive equal pay to for-profit business means an increased likelihood of executive security, improving the chances of retention. They feel satisfied, fulfilled, and fairly compensated, thus encouraging them to stick with the organization and even challenges them to work harder.
Another advantage is that the organization is guaranteed to hire highly qualified individuals for the job, as is evident in the case study. Therefore, paying them well could help convince and lure even the most competent individual to working for the organization. Thus, this provides the not-for-profit organization with a competitive advantage against business organizations guaranteeing excellence, growth, and increased profitability. Hence, increasing the performance potentials of the organization as they compete against each other in the world with endless opportunities and limited resources (Grasee et al. 2014). However, it should be noted that overcompensating the executives could result in negatives effects, as seen in the case study, whereby the donors feel that it is their moral obligation to be guided by service other than monetary gains.
Disadvantages
When a nonprofit organization expects its executives to do the same amount of work as a for-profit executive, less pay presents the organization with disadvantages. Therefore, putting the organization at risk for failure and preventing growth as most skilled professionals shy away from accepting jobs. In addition, workers believe that their value to the organization is not reasonably compensated and could undoubtedly result in hiring unqualified personnel and affecting its productivity. High turnover rates can be more costly to the nonprofit organization than raising the compensation enough to attract top talent.
Another Disadvantage is high turnover rates for the executive, considering they can quickly be swayed and lured by other organizations to obtain better wages, making workforce retention difficult. In addition, high turnover rates are costly to an organization because of the increased cost of recruiting, hiring, and training new employees and causing a decline in productivity, morale, customer satisfaction, and innovation, making it hard to compete with for-profit business organizations.
References
Frumkin, P., & Keating, E. K. (2010). The price of doing good: Executive compensation in non-profit organizations. Policy and Society, 29(3), 269-282.
Grasse, N., Davis, T., & Ihrke, D. (2014). Understanding the compensation of non-profit executive directors: Examining the influence of performance and organizational characteristics. Non-profit Management and Leadership, 24(3), 377-398.
Johnson, C. E. (2016). Nonprofit Executive Compensation: How Much is Too Much?. SAGE.[supanova_question]
Week 4: Musculoskeletal Assessment Utilizing the Musculoskeletal Assessment form located in the
Week 4: Musculoskeletal Assessment
Utilizing the Musculoskeletal Assessment form located in the files folder, complete this assessment on a family member, friend or yourself (Skype/virtual assessment is accepted). After completion of this assessment, complete a word reflection paper responding to the following questions:
What new information did you gain from this assignment?
How will you utilize this information in your future nursing practice?
How will it affect you practice? As a nurse
To complete this assignment, both the assessment form and reflection paper MUST be uploaded
Rubric
NR304 System Assessment Grading Rubric
NR304 System Assessment Grading Rubric
Criteria
Ratings
Pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome upload completed assessment form
upload completed assessment form (cannot be a family member or friend). You can find the assessment sheet in the files section of canvas
40 pts
Full Marks
0 pts
No Marks
40 pts
This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Reflection
Write a reflection paper on the assessment, answering the following questions:
1) What did you learn of value?
2) How will you use this information?
3) How will it affect you practice? As a nurse
10 pts
Full Marks
0 pts
No Marks
10 pts
Total Points: 50[supanova_question]
MULTIPLE CHOICE ITEMS Introduction Burton, Sudweeks, Merrill and Wood (1991) note that
MULTIPLE CHOICE ITEMS
Introduction
Burton, Sudweeks, Merrill and Wood (1991) note that educational testing experts have identified an increase in poorly constructed multiple choice items, in most cases items are so defective that the correct answer is obvious, debatable, obscure, or missing altogether. The examinee is forced to wonder what the test writer had in mind when the item was constructed (Burton, Sudweeks, Merrill and Wood, 1991). In addition to confusing and frustrating students, poorly-written test questions yield scores of dubious value that are inappropriate to use as a basis of evaluating student achievement (Burton, Sudweeks, Merrill and Wood, 1991). Well-written multiple-choice test questions SHOULD not confuse students, and yield scores that are more appropriate to use in determining the extent to which students have achieved the intended educational objectives. Multiple choice questions are commonly used because they are easy to grade and students are familiar with their structure. Most multiple choice questions involve only recognition or recall of facts, however questions can be written to test higher level thinking skills, such as problem-solving, these however are harder to write.
Most poorly-written multiple-choice test questions are characterized by at least one of the following three weaknesses:
1. They attempt to measure an objective for which they are not well-suited
2. They contain clues to the correct answer
3. They are worded ambiguously
Definition
Multiple response is a form of assessment in which examinees are asked to select or choose one/ the best possible answer (or answers) out of the choices from a list supplied by the examiner. All multiple choice question are composed of one question with multiple possible answers, including the correct answer and several incorrect answers called distracters (Burton, Sudweeks, Merrill and Wood, 1991). Students select the correct answer by circling the associated number or letter, or filling in the associated circle on the machine-readable response sheet. Students can generally respond to these types of questions quite quickly, as a result, they are often used to test student’s knowledge of a broad
range of content. Creating these questions can be time consuming because it is often difficult to generate several plausible distractors.
Structure
All standard multiple-choice test items consist of two (2) basic parts (Burton, Sudweeks, Merrill and Wood, 1991):
1. A problem (stem) – The text of the question.
2. A list of suggested solutions (alternatives) – The choices provided after the stem represent the options for the possible answers that the examiner can choose from with two sub parts:
The key – the correct answer in the list of options.
The distracters- the incorrect answers in the list of options.
The stem is the introduction (beginning) of the item that presents a problem to be solved, a question asked of the respondent, or an incomplete statement to be completed, as well as any other relevant information. In assessing higher order thinking (application) the stem can consist of multiple parts. The stem can include extended or ancillary material such as a vignette, a case study, a graph, a table, or a detailed description which has multiple elements to it (Brown and Pendlebury 2007). The stem can include any amount of information that will increase the validity of the learning objective, but should remain as a question (Gronlund 2010). In a Counseling examination in reference to a case study that was previously presented the examinee may be asked “What is the most likely diagnosis?”
In the alternatives only one answer can be keyed as correct, except in the case of the multiple response type questions, in which more than one answer is correct. The grading of a MCQ is usually on the basis of one mark for each correct answer and zero for each incorrect (Gronlund 2010). In some Courses, the examiner may also award partial credit for unanswered questions and penalize students for incorrect answers, to discourage guessing. Example in Medical Examinations at the University of the West Indies (UWI) and in the SAT’s a quarter point is deducted from the test taker’s score for each incorrect answer.
General Principle
Examiners should construct stems that are clear and parsimonious and options that are explicit and unequivocal that will be selected by the examinee who achieves the learning objective. Distractors that are plausible competitors of the answer will be evidenced by the frequency with which they are chosen.
The purpose of the distractors is to appear as plausible solutions to the problem for those students who have not achieved the objective being measured by the test item. Conversely, the distractors must appear as implausible solutions for those students who have achieved the objective. Only the answer should appear plausible to these students (Burton, Sudweeks, Merrill and Wood, 1991). Plausible distractors are based on teachers anticipating wrong answers or common misconceptions.
Example:
1. Calculate the median of the following numbers: 27, 100, 15, 67, 27, 12,44, 81, 75,48
A. 27
B. 46
C. 49
D. 496
The examinee must recall the definition of the median and then apply that definition to the list of numbers. The median is the number at the midpoint of a distribution (46). A common mistake is to confuse the definitions of median, mean and mode. The mean (49) is one of the distractors, the mode (27) is also one of the distractors and the sum (496) a partial correct answer (the numerator of the mean is also a distractors). This question has one correct choice that corresponds to the objective and three distractors, all of which are plausible to the learner who has not met the learning objective (Calculate the Median).
Distractor Taxonomy
An assessment of distractors can be used to improve classroom instruction, student performance and accountability of teachers. Assessment should provide educators with information about what a student knows and what additional instruction or intervention the student requires to likely attain desired learning outcomes to improve classroom instruction (Linn and Gronlund, 2000; Nitko, 2004).
Multiple-choice items written using the Distractor rationale taxonomy may reveal a student’s breakdown in understanding through his or her incorrect answers (Pearson, 2010). An assessment system that incorporates this methodology can indicate a student’s instructional needs in a subject area and thereby contribute to the development of a focused intervention plan.
Contemporary authorities in educational assessment have suggested extending the functional role of distractors to include a new purpose: identifying the nature of a student’s misunderstanding. Nitko (2004) observes that the Distractor selected provides a diagnostic insight into the difficulties the student is experiencing and Popham (2000) also recognizes the potential of distractors to represent the categories of incorrect responses that students make. This allows teachers to follow up with additional classroom instruction based on the most common errors made by students.
History
E. L. Thorndike developed an early multiple choice test, however Frederick J. Kelly is credited with first using these items as part of a large scale assessment in 1915, during the Kansas Silent Reading Test. The first all multiple choice, large scale assessment was the Army Alpha, used to assess the intelligence of World War I military recruits (Isaacs, 1994).
SOME OF THE MORE COMMON TYPES OF MULTIPLE CHOCIE QUESTIONS
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER
In items of the single-correct-answer variety, all but one of the alternatives are incorrect; the remaining alternative is the correct answer. The student is directed to identify the correct answer
What concept is defined as ‘a brief sample of behavior obtained under standard conditions and scored according to a fixed set of rules that provide a numeric score ’ ( Douglas, 2013) ?
A. Test
B. Assessment
C. Measurement
D. Psychometrics
CLASSIFICATION The examinee classifies a person, object, or condition into one of several categories designated in the stem:
Rev. Dr. Lewin Williams was characterized as a_________________________ Theologian based on Rev. Ropers (2012) taxonomy.
A. Systematic
B. Biblical
C. Historical
D. Philosophical
BEST ANSWER
The alternatives differ in their degree of correctness. Some may be completely incorrect and some correct, but one is clearly more correct than the others. This best alternative serves as the answer, while the other alternatives function as distractors. The student is directed to identify the best answer
What is chiefly responsible for the increase in student registration at the University of Texas during the last four years (C. Harrison, 2013)?
A. Compulsory education for Pastors in the Missionary Church.
B. Increased desire for education among church workers.
C. The coming of Jesus Christ, which has greatly increased religious values.
D. The increased salary that comes with more qualified church workers
ODDITY
The examinee indicates which option does not belong with the others
Which of the following names does not belong with the others?
A. Carlene Davis
B. Prodigal Son
C. Omari
D. Tommy Lee
NEGATIVE The student is directed to identify either the alternative that is an incorrect answer, or the alternative that is the worst answer. Any of the other multiple-choice varieties can be converted into this negative format.
For most educational objectives, a student’s achievement is more effectively measured by identifying a correct answer rather than an incorrect answer. The ability to identify an incorrect answer does not necessarily imply knowledge of the correct answer. For this reason, items of the negative variety are not recommended for general use. Occasionally, negative items are appropriate for objectives dealing with health or safety issues , where knowing what not to do is important. Example – When your clothes are on fire it is equally important for a person to know what to do and what not to do.
In these situations, negative items must be carefully worded to avoid confusing the student. The negative word should be placed in the stem, not in the alternatives, and should be emphasized by using underlining, italics, bold face, or CAPITALS. In addition, each of the alternatives should be phrased positively to avoid forming a confusing double negative with the stem:
Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Testing and Measurement (Frankson 2013)?
A. Test-related behavior predicts non-test-related behavior.
B. Testing and assessment can be conducted in a biased manner
C. Various sources of data enrich and part of the assessment process
D. Various sources of error are always part of the assessment process
IF-THEN CONDITIONS
The examinee must decide the correct consequence of one or more conditions being present in the stem:
If the true variance of a test increases but the error variance remains constant, which of the following will occur?
A. Reliability will increase
B. Reliability will decrease
C. Observed variance will decrease
D. Neither reliability nor observed variance will change
MULTIPLE CONDITIONS
The examinee uses the two or more conditions or statements listed in the stem to draw a conclusion
Given that Mary’s raw score on a test is 60, the test mean is 59, and the standard deviation 2, what is Mary’s z score ?
A. -2.00
B. -0.50
C. 0.50
D. -.2.00
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
In items of multiple response variety, two or more of the alternatives are keyed as correct answers; the remaining alternatives serve as distractors. The student is directed to identify each correct answer.
This variety of item can be scored in several different ways. Scoring on an all-or-none basis (one point if all the correct answers and none of the distractors are selected, and zero points otherwise), and scoring each alternative independently (one point for each correct answer chosen and one point for each distractor not chosen) are commonly used methods. Both methods, however, have distinct disadvantages. With the first method, a student who correctly identifies all but one of the answers receives the same score as a student who cannot identify any of the answers. The second method produces scores more representative of each student’s achievement, but most computer programs currently used with scoring machines do not include this method as an option. As a result, items of the multiple-response variety are not recommended.
Since an item of multiple-response variety is often simply a series of related true-false questions presented together as a group, a good alternative that avoids the scoring problems mentioned above is to rewrite it as a multiple true-false item.
What of the following is/are the purpose/s of the Rorschach?
A. Determine sexual needs
B. Examine emotional functioning
C. Determined sexuality
D. Predict Intelligence
E. Assess emotional adjustment
F. Analyze vocational choices
G. Determine academic skills
COMBINED RESPONSE
In items of the combined-response variety, one or more of the alternatives are correct answers; the remaining alternatives serve as distractors. The student is directed to identify the correct answer or answers by selecting one of a set of letters, each of which represent a combination of alternatives. Items of the combined-response variety are lower in reliability, lower in discrimination, higher in difficulty, and equal in validity when compared with similar items of the single-correct-answer and best-answer varieties (Albanese, 1990; Haladyna & Downing, 1989b). They have also been found to be lower in reliability, higher in difficulty, and equal in validity when compared with similar multiple true-false items (Frisbie, 1990).
This variety shares the disadvantage of all-or-none scoring with the multiple-response variety and has the added disadvantage of providing clues that help students with only partial knowledge detect the correct combination of alternatives. A student can identify a combination as the correct response simply by knowing that alternatives 1 and 4 are both correct. Because of these disadvantages, items of combined-response variety are not recommended.
Like the multiple-response variety, an item of the combined-response variety is often simply a series of related true-false questions presented together as a group. A good alternative that avoids the scoring and cluing problems mentioned above is to rewrite it as a multiple true-false item.
What are the main ways that a person can contract the HIV Virus (MOH, 2014)?
1. Engaging in Unprotected Oral Sex
2. Having Multiple Partners
3. Kissing and Hugging someone with HIV
4. Giving Blood .
The correct answer is:
A. 1, 2, and 3.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 2 and 4.
D. 1 only.
MULTIPLE TRUE-FALSE
The examinee decides whether one, all or none of the two or more conditions or statements listed in the stem is (are) correct:
Is it true that (1) Alfred Binet was the father of intelligence testing, and (2) his first intelligence test was published in 1916 ?
A. Both 1 and 2
B. 1 but not 2
C. Not 1 but 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
A 45 year old asthmatic woman who has lived all her life in Westmoreland presents with a goitre of four years’ duration and clinical features suggestive of hypothyroidism. Likely diagnoses include
A. Iodine deficiency
B. Dyshormonogenesis
C. Drug-induced goitre
D. Thyroid cancer
E. Auto immune thyroiditis
In the above question, the examiner is assessing application; this approach may be used for testing knowledge and judgement in many subjects. When grouped together, a series of true/false questions on a specific topic or scenario can test a more complex understanding of an issue. They can be structured to lead a student through a logical pathway (Brown 1997) as in the above example which simulates a medical diagnosis. Such questions may also be useful to the lecturer for diagnostic purposes, because they can reveal part of the thinking process employed by the student in order to solve the given problem.
ASSERTION-REASON
The assertion-reason item combines elements of multiple choice and true/false question types, and allows the examiner to test more complicated issues and requires a higher level of learning. The question consists of two statements, an assertion and a reason. The student must first determine whether each statement is true. If both are true, the student must next determine whether the reason correctly explains the assertion. There is one option for each possible outcome (Frisbie, 1990).
Each question below consists of an assertion and a reason. Indicate your answer from the alternatives below by circling the appropriate letter
Assertion Reason
A. True True Reason is correct explanation.
B. True True Reason is NOT a correct explanation.
C. True False
D. False True
E. False False
Assertion
1. The blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepactectomy.
BECAUSE
The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
2. Increased government spending increases inflation under all conditions.
BECAUSE
Government spending is not offset by any form of production.
3. Chloroform has a dipole moment
BECAUSE
The chloroform molecule is tetrahedral
Assertion-reason tests can be used to explore cause and effect and identify relationships.
When writing assertion-reason questions, the following points should be considered:
1. The reason should be a free standing sentence so that it can be considered separately fromthe assertion.
2. Avoid using minor reasons. These can result in an ambiguous question.
3. Repeat options A-E in full for each question.
4. Use all five options as keys equally
RELATIONS AND CORRELATES
The examinee determines the relationship between concepts 1 and 2 and indicates which of the concepts (a, b, c, d, etc) listed in the options is related to concept 3 in the same way that concepts 1 and 2 are related:
1. Mean is to standard deviation as median is to :
A. Average Deviation
B. Variance
C. Semi-Interquartile range
D. Correlation coefficient
GUIDELINES FOR WRITING MULTIPLE-CHOICE ITEMS
Planning
The primary objective in planning a test is to outline the actual course content and alignment with course objectives that the test will cover. In developing good multiple-choice items, three tasks need to be considered: Writing stems, Writing options, and on-going item development.
General Considerations
1. Writing a good multiple choice question, no matter what level of knowledge is being tested, begins with good course objectives. Course objectives need to be written in measurable terms.
2. Test for significant learning outcomes, the questions should be designed to test the learning objectives of the course, and not trivia associated with the subject matter. Questions should be recognized as being relevant to the goals of the course.
3. Present practical or real-world situations to the students aiming for application, analysis or evaluation.
4. Test Higher Level Cognitive Domains, the Rote memorization of facts, laws, and definitions have its place in the overall scheme. However, at least 90% of the test should be devoted to higher levels of cognition.
5. Before writing the stem, identify the one point to be tested by that item. In general, the stem should not pose more than one problem, although the solution to that problem may require more than one step.
Test for the intended intellectual skills, a question should not intentionally be a “test within a test”. Example: How many permutations are possible in overtime for Super Bowl XLVII? A student who knows how to calculate permutations and combinations (the skill being tested for in the context of a Statistics course at JTS) will not be able to answer this question if he/she has never played American Football. Keep the vocabulary consistent with the students’ level of understanding.
7. Pay special attention to the language used, the level of the language should be within reach of the students, not all examinees home language will be English. Use correct grammar throughout and avoid the use of jargon, unless you are specifically testing terminology. Second-language students will take longer to read and understand a question, misreading the question by the student may lead to the wrong answer.
8. Be sensitive to cultural and gender issues. Avoid turns of phrase and figures of speech that could reasonably be construed as racist or sexist, or which may have a cultural or religious bias.
9. Ask a knowledge colleague with expertise in the content area of the exam to review the items for possible ambiguities, redundancies or other structural difficulties. This peer reviewing process is critical in providing constructive criticism and improving composed items. Writing is a difficult task thus preparing good multiple choice items is a scholarly activity that demands time, clarity of thought, and precision in expression. Students read test items more carefully than they read anything else thus all flaws and imperfections will be exposed.
10. Instruct students to select the “best answer” rather than the “correct answer”. Thus acknowledging the fact that the distractors may have an element of truth to them and discourage arguments from students who may argue that their answer is correct as well. These questions also tend to be more difficult and discriminating than questions that merely ask for a fact.
11. The time of the exam should be sufficient that students have time for editing and other types of question revisions.
Specific Guidelines
These guidelines should be observed when constructing the stems and options of high quality multiple-choice items (Aiken, 2006), this list is not meant to be exhaustive but outline some of the major guidelines:
1. Either a question or an incomplete statement may be used as the stem, but the question format is preferred. Place blanks in incomplete statement stems at the end. Construct the stem to be a complete standalone question, avoiding stereotyped phraseology, as rote responses are usually based on verbal stereotypes.
2. State the specific problem of the question or incomplete statement clearly, simply and as concretely as
possible in the stem and at a reading level appropriate for the examinees, but avoid taking questions or statements verbatim from textbooks. Avoid vague generalizations and do not include irrelevant information. It is essential that the students should know exactly what is expected of them, BE CLEAR. Without sacrificing clarity, be as concise and focused as possible. The purpose is to measure students’ knowledge ,reasoning, and ability not to engage in verbal gamesmanship. The idea is to discriminate levels of understanding, not to trap the unwary. Write questions that cannot be misunderstood, not merely questions that can be understood.
3. Avoid including non-functional information or words that do not contribute to the basis for choosing among the Stem. Often an introductory statement is included to enhance the appropriateness or significance of an item but does not affect the meaning of the problem in the item. All superfluous phrases should be excluded
The flag of Jamaica which was adopted on August 6, 1962, when the country gained independence from the British consists of three colours, what are they ?
Irrelevant material should not be used to make the answer less obvious. This tends to place too much importance on reading comprehension as a determiner of the correct option
“The presence and association of the male seems to have profound effects on female physiology in domestic animals. Research has shown that in cattle presence of a bull has the following effect:”
Research has shown that the presence of a bull has which of the following effects on cows?”
Don’t include superfluous information in the options. This is another manifestation of the desire to teach while testing and the additional information is likely to appear on the correct answer. Examinees prefer less to read and more direct questions.
5. Place as much of the item as possible in the stem. The stem should contain most of the wording in order to reduce the reading load. It is inefficient to repeat the same words in every option, and examines have less difficulty with shorter options. Example, if the point of an item is to associate a term with its definition, the preferred format would be to present the definition in the stem and several terms as options rather than to present the term in the stem and several definitions as options.
6. Employ opinion questions sparingly, when they are used, cite the authority or source of the opinion.
7. Four or five options are typical, but good items
having only two or three options can also be written. With students in the lower grades, three options are preferable to four or five. Four well-constructed options are suffice as there is only minimal improvement to the item due to that hard-to-come-by fifth option which is not worth the effort to construct. Empirical data has proven that a test of 10 items each with four options is likely a better test than a test with nine items of five options each.
8. There is no psychometric advantage to having a uniform number of options, especially if doing so results in options that are so implausible that no one or almost no one marks them. Several valid and important questions demand only three options,
After receiving pre-marital counselling the relationship between two persons will (Douglas 2013):
A. Increase,
B. Stay about the same,
C. Decrease.”
If the options have a natural order, such as dates or ages, it is advisable to arrange them accordingly; otherwise arrange the options in random or alphabetical order ( if alphabetizing does not give clues to the correct answer).
10. Use familiar language. The question should use the same terminology that was used in the course. Avoid using unfamiliar expressions or foreign language terms, unless measuring knowledge of such language is one of the goals of the question. Students are likely to dismiss distractors with unfamiliar terms as incorrect.
Write in the Active Voice. The active voice is used in a clause whose subject expresses the agent of the main verb. That is, the subject does the action designated by the verb. A sentence whose agent is marked as grammatical subject is called an active sentence. In contrast, a sentence in which the subject has the role of patient or theme is called a passive sentence, and its verb is expressed in passive voice.
12. Make all options approximately equal in length, complexity , grammatically correct and and appropriate in relation to the stem. However, do not let the stem give away the correct option by verbal associations or other clues. Avoid irrelevant clues to the correct option. Grammatical construction, for example, may lead students to reject options which are grammatically incorrect as the stem is stated. Perhaps more common and subtle, though, is the problem of common elements in the stem and in the answer. Consider the following item:
What led to the formation of the States’ Rights Party?
A. The level of federal taxation
B. The demand of states for the right to make their own laws
C. The industrialization of the South
D. The corruption of federal legislators on the issue of state taxation
13. Make all options plausible to examinees who do not know the correct answer, but make only one option correct or best. Popular misconceptions or statements that are only partially correct make good distracters. Options should be independent
14. In constructing each distracter, formulate a reason why an examinee who does not know the correct answer might select that distracter
15. Avoid, or at least minimize, the use of negative expressions such as not in either the stem or options. If this cannot be done, the negative words should always be highlighted by underlining or capitalisation. Negatives in the stem usually require that the answer be a false statement. Because students are likely in the habit of searching for true statements, this may introduce an unwanted bias.
16. A certain amount of novelty, and even humour is appropriate and may serve to interest and motivate examinees, ambiguous or tricky stems and options should not be used.
17. Use “none of the above”, “all of the above”, or “more than one of the above” sparingly. Also avoid specific determiners such as “always” or never”. Recognition of one wrong option eliminates “all of the above,” and recognition of two right options identifies it as the answer, even if the other options are completely unknown to the student. Some instructors use items with “all of the above” as yet another way of extending their teaching into the test . It just seems so good to have the students affirm, say, all of the major causes of some phenomenon. With this approach, “all of the above” is the answer to almost every item containing it, and the students soon figure this out. “none of the above” may be used as the final option, especially if the answer requires computation. Its use makes the question harder and more discriminating, because the uncertain student cannot focus on a set of options that must contain the answer. Of course, “none of the above” cannot be used if the question requires selection of the best answer and should not be used following a negative stem. Also, it is important that “none of the above” should be the answer to a reasonable proportion of the questions containing it. Specific determiners in distractors is a desperate effort to produce another, often unneeded, distractor and a statement is made incorrect by the inclusion of words like all or never
e.g., “All humans have 46 chromosomes.” Students learn to classify such statements as distractors when otherwise ignorant.
18. Place the options in stacked( paragraph) format rather than in tandem (back to back), using numbers to designate items and letters for options. Format the questions vertically, not horizontally (i.e., list the choices vertically)
19. Prepare the right number of items for the grade or age level to be tested, making each item independent of other items.
20. Construct each item to assess a single written objective. Items that are not written with a specific objective in mind often end up measuring lower-level objectives exclusively, or covering trivial material that is of little educational worth
21. Make the difficulty levels of items such that the percentage of examinees who answer the item correctly is approximately halfway between the chance (random guessing
percent and 100 percent (5 correct = 50 (k+1)/k is the number of distracters per item). The ideal question will be answered correctly by 60-65% of the tested population. This level of difficulty maximizes discrimination on exams. In the sciences at least, it can be an adventure to write items that are this easy. Instructors tend to overestimate student abilities and many item writers use their own capabilities as a yardstick,
22 .Avoid Typographical Errors and Overlapping Responses . A test wise but ignorant student will select Edward Seaga in the example below because he represents the intersection of several categories, Prime Minister, Framer of the Constitution and Cultural Icon . Some item writers consciously or unconsciously construct items of this type with the intersection invariably the correct answer.
A. Edward Seaga
B. David Coore
C. Portia Simpson Miller
D. Bob Marley
An examiner can compensate for ambiguities and mis-phrasing in grading numerical problems and essays however for multiple choice items, there must be a rigid application of grammar and logic for questions to be useful. It takes considerable time and thought to construct a good multiple choice item. Writing well-phrased stems with plausible foils is hardly ever easy. The guidelines presented here have must be supplemented with practical experience. Following the construction of the item stem, the likely more difficult task of generating options presents itself.
The challenges with ensuring that the question is grammatically correct is reinforced by the excerpt “ Rules of English” published in the Chronicle of Higher Education (May 19, 1982).
1. Don’t use no double negatives.
2. Make each pronoun agree with their antecedent.
3. Join clauses good, like a conjunction should.
4. When dangling watch them participles.
5. About them sentence fragments.
6. Verbs has to agree with their subject.
7. Just between you and I, case is important, too.
8. Don’t write run-on sentences they are hard to read.
9. Don’t use commas, which are not necessary.
10. Try to not ever split infinitives.
11. Its important to use your apostrophe’s correctly.
12. Proof read your writing to see if any words out.
ADVANTAGES AND LIMITATIONS OF MULTIPLE-CHOICE ITEMS
There are several advantages to multiple choice tests. Well written MCQ’s are very effective assessment techniques. Reliability improves with larger numbers of items on a test, and with good sampling and care over case specificity, overall test reliability can be further increased. Multiple choice tests often require less time to administer for a given amount of material than would tests requiring written responses. This results in a more comprehensive evaluation of the candidate’s extent of knowledge.
Multiple choice questions lend themselves to the development of objective assessment items, because this style of test does not require a teacher to interpret answers, test-takers are graded purely on their selections, creating a lower likelihood of teacher bias in the results. Factors irrelevant to the assessed material (such as handwriting and clarity of presentation) do not come into play in a multiple-choice assessment, and so the candidate is graded purely on their knowledge of the topic. Multiple choice tests are the strongest predictors of overall student performance compared with other forms of evaluations, such as in-class participation, case exams, written assignments, and simulation games
They are however not a panacea, they have advantages and limitations just as any other type of test item. Teachers need to be aware of these characteristics in order to use multiple- choice items effectively.
Advantages
Versatility. Multiple-choice test items are appropriate for use in many different subject-matter areas, and can be used to measure a great variety of educational objectives. They are adaptable to various levels of learning outcomes, from simple recall of knowledge to more complex levels, such as the student’s ability to:
Analyze phenomena
? Apply principles to new situations
? Comprehend concepts and principles
? Discriminate between fact and opinion
? Interpret cause-and-effect relationships
? Interpret charts and graphs
? Judge the relevance of information
? Make inferences from given data
? Solve problems
The difficulty of multiple-choice items can be controlled by changing the alternatives, since the more homogeneous the alternatives, the finer the distinction the students must make in order to identify the correct answer. Multiple-choice items are amenable to item analysis, which enables the teacher to improve the item by replacing distractors that are not functioning properly. In addition, the distractors chosen by the student may be used to diagnose misconceptions of the student or weaknesses in the teacher’s instruction
2. Validity. In general, it takes much longer to respond to an essay test question than it does to respond to a multiple-choice test item, since the composing and recording of an essay answer is such a slow process. A student is therefore able to answer many multiple-choice items in the time it would take to answer a single essay question. This feature enables the teacher using multiple-choice items to test a broader sample of course content in a given amount of testing time. Consequently, the test scores will likely be more representative of the students’ overall achievement in the course
3. Reliability. Well-written multiple-choice test items compare favorably with other test item types on the issue of reliability. They are less susceptible to guessing than are true-false test items, and therefore capable of producing more reliable scores. Their scoring is more clear-cut than short-answer test item scoring because there are no misspelled or partial answers to deal with. Since multiple-choice items are objectively scored, they are not affected by scorer inconsistencies as are essay questions, and they are essentially immune to the influence of bluffing and writing ability factors, both of which can lower the reliability of essay test scores.
4. Efficiency. Multiple-choice items are amenable to rapid scoring, which is often done by scoring machines. This expedites the reporting of test results to the student so that any follow-up clarification of instruction may be done before the course has proceeded much further. Essay questions, on the other hand, must be graded manually, one at a time
DISADVANTAGES
The most serious disadvantage is the limited types of knowledge that can be assessed by multiple choice tests. Multiple choice tests are best adapted for testing well-defined or lower-order skills. Problem-solving and higher-order reasoning skills are better assessed through short-answer and essay tests.
Multiple choice tests are often chosen, not because of the type of knowledge being assessed, but because they are more affordable for testing a large number of students.
Another disadvantage of multiple choice tests is possible ambiguity in the examinee’s interpretation of the item. Failing to interpret information as the test maker intended can result in an “incorrect” response, even if the taker’s response is potentially valid. The term “multiple guess” has been used to describe this scenario because test-takers may attempt to guess rather than determine the correct answer. A free response test allows the test taker to make an argument for their viewpoint and potentially receive credit.
In addition, even if students have some knowledge of a question, they receive no credit for
knowing that information if they select the wrong answer and the item is scored dichotomously. However, free response questions may allow an examinee to demonstrate partial understanding of the subject and receive partial credit. Additionally if more questions on a particular subject area or topic are asked to create a larger sample then statistically their level of knowledge for that topic will be reflected more accurately in the number of correct answers and final results
Another disadvantage of multiple choice examinations is that a student who is incapable of answering a particular question can simply select a random answer and still have a chance of receiving a mark for it. It is common practice for students with no time left to give all remaining questions random answers in the hope that they will get at least some of them right.
Additionally, it is important to note that questions phrased ambiguously may cause test-taker confusion. It is generally accepted that multiple choice questions allow for only one answer, where the one answer may encapsulate a collection of previous options. However, some test creators are unaware of this and might expect the student to select multiple answers without being given explicit permission, or providing the trailing encapsulation options. Of course, untrained test developers are a threat to validity regardless of the item format
1. Versatility. Since the student selects a response from a list of alternatives rather than supplying or constructing a response, multiple-choice test items are not adaptable to measuring certain learning outcomes, such as the student’s ability to:
? Articulate explanations
? Display thought processes
? Furnish information
? Organize personal thoughts
? Perform a specific task
? Produce original ideas
? Provide examples
Such learning outcomes are better measured by short answer or essay questions, or by performance tests.
2. Reliability. Although they are less susceptible to guessing than are true false-test items, multiple-choice items are still affected to a certain extent. This guessing factor reduces the reliability of multiple-choice item scores somewhat, but increasing the number of items on the test offsets this reduction in reliability.
3. Difficulty of Construction. Good multiple-choice test items are generally more difficult and time-consuming to write than other types of test items. Coming up with plausible distractors requires a certain amount of skill. This skill, however, may be increased through study, practice, and experience
Deciding When Multiple-Choice Items Should Be Used
In order for scores to accurately represent the degree to which a student has attained an educational objective, it is essential that the form of test item used in the assessment be suitable for the objective. Multiple-choice test items are often advantageous to use, but they are not the best form of test item for every circumstance. In general, they are appropriate to use when the attainment of the educational
objective can be measured by having the student select his or her response from a list of several alternative responses.
One of the reasons why some teachers dislike multiple-choice items is that they believe these items are only good for measuring simple recall of facts. This misconception is understandable, because multiple-choice items are frequently used to measure lower-level objectives, such as those based on knowledge of terms, facts, methods, and principles. The real value of multiple choice items, however, is their applicability in measuring higher-level objectives, such as those based in comprehension, application, and analysis.
Checklist for Reviewing Multiple-Choice Items
1. Has the item been constructed to assess a single written objective?
2. Is the item based on a specific problem stated clearly in the stem?
3. Does the stem include as much of the item as possible, without including irrelevant material?
4. Is the stem stated in positive form?
5. Are the alternatives worded clearly and concisely?
6. Are the alternatives mutually exclusive?
7. Are the alternatives homogeneous in content?
8. Are the alternatives free from clues as to which response is correct?
9. Have the alternatives “all of the above” and “none of the above” been avoided?
10. Does the item include as many functional distractors as are feasible?
11. Does the item include one and only one correct or clearly best answer?
12. Has the answer been randomly assigned to one of the alternative positions?
13. Is the item laid out in a clear and consistent manner?
14. Are the grammar, punctuation, and spelling correct?
15. Has unnecessarily difficult vocabulary been avoided?
16. If the item has been administered before, has its effectiveness been analyzed?
Item writing checklist
1. Is the item clear and concise?
2. Did you use the active voice?
3. Did you avoid “ould” words?
4. Is the difficulty level acceptable?
5. Does the stem pose a question or an incomplete thought?
6. If you used blanks, are they at the end of the stem?
7. Does the stem focus on a significant or important aspect?
8. Did you emphasize the NEGATIVES?
9. Have you avoided keying the answer in the stem?
10. Are the distractors plausible?
11. Is there only one arguable correct response?
12. Are the foils homogeneous?
13. Did you avoid overlapping foils?
14. Are numerical foils in either ascending or descending order?[supanova_question]
Learning Objective for Module 2 Students will be able to articulate the
Learning Objective for Module 2
Students will be able to articulate the importance of using the time after school to do something new to help close achievement gaps between low-income and higher income youth.
READ:
Gardner, M. Roth, J.L., Brooks-Gunn, J. (2009). Can after-school programs help level the playing field for disadvantaged youth. Campaign for Educational Equity Teachers College, Columbia University. Retrieved from: http://files.eric.ed.gov/fulltext/ED523997.pdf
WATCH:
Examine the graphic and listen to THIS short (2.5 min) video (both copied from ExpandEDSchools in NY). Think about the message- by the time they reach 6th grade, middle class kids have likely spent 6,000 more hours learning than kids born into poverty.
LISTEN TO THE LECTURE:
Equity vs Equality: The OST Opportunity
A CASE AGAINST SUMMER VACATION
READ:
Mahoney, J. L. (2011). Adolescent summer care arrangements and risk for obesity the following school year. Journal of Adolescence, 34(4), 737–749.
WATCH:
Impact of Summer on Socio-Economic Achievement Gap: (2 min)
https://youtu.be/Ahhj3wxxkdM
OPTIONAL READ:
Drehle, D. V. (2010, April) .The Case Against Summer Vacation. Time 36-42.
WATCH:
A Broader, Bolder Approach to Education
(Required: 0-38:30 min, but I encourage you to watch the whole thing!)
Pedro Noguera delivers the 2011 UVA Ridley Lecture, titled “A Broader, Bolder Approach to Education,” outlining BBA principles and recommendations for addressing poverty-related impediments to learning that diminish opportunities too many American children.
https://youtu.be/SxRL-aOoevE
OPTIONAL READ:
Balfanz, R. (2012). Overcoming the Poverty Challenge to Enable College and Career Readiness for All.[supanova_question]
Instructions Please turn in a reflection paper here that discusses what you
Instructions
Please turn in a reflection paper here that discusses what you learned this week especially related to the learning outcomes. A good practice would be to carefully review the outcomes before you begin to read the resources and texts. The objective of the paper is to review the benefits of your learning for your job or your personal edification. If you are an in-service student, applications to your job would be very appropriate. If you are a pre-service student please reflect on how the learning outcomes may or may not be compatible with your overall learning objectives. This reflection paper needs only to be about 3 to 5 pages in length.
https://barry.instructure.com/courses/1602435/files/65883241/download?wrap=1
https://barry.instructure.com/courses/1602435/files/65883242/download?wrap=1
Week 3: How to Find and Keep Good People
Chapter Summary
Hiring the right person for a government job is usually an extremely complex and difficult task, because civil service rules and employment laws dictate various steps and procedures that managers must follow in the hiring process. In addition, public sector salaries tend to be fairly low and inflexible compared with private sector salaries; government has a negative reputation; and the benefits and security of government jobs often attract timid, risk-averse individuals, which makes it difficult to implement an aggressive and daring program strategy. Despite these challenges, attracting good people to work in the public sector is certainly not impossible. It is up to the effective public manager to find interested and qualified people to fill staff positions.
To find good people, effective managers will first assess their current staff members in terms of their skills, strengths, and weaknesses in order to determine their staffing needs. The managers then must develop an effective recruitment network capable of filling those staffing needs. Effective managers have a well-developed professional network that they can use to get the word out about a job opening and obtain nominations for the position. Managers can join relevant professional associations and social media professional groups such as LinkedIn and use social media to target specific organizational needs. Additionally, good people should be encouraged to apply using this network. Once applications are received, managers must judge applicants based on each applicant’s ability to fit the organization’s specific needs.
Every government organization has very specific rules governing hiring and firing. In addition to complying with civil service laws, employers must comply with various federal and state employment laws and executive orders dealing with equal opportunity employment, affirmative action, and antidiscrimination policies.
Instead of filling a permanent or full-time position, managers can bring a person into an organization with a temporary appointment. It is often possible to hire someone much more quickly through a temporary appointment. Temporary personnel tend to be less socialized into organizational norms and less inclined to follow standard procedures for their own sake than are permanent employees.
When it is not feasible to hire temporary employees, another approach is the use of contractors. Although contracting comes with risks, many success stories suggest that a multisector strategy can be effective in solving public policy problems. Another way to staff an organization is to borrow people from other organizations by assembling an agency or multiagency task force, asking to have people assigned or detailed to a different organization on a temporary basis, or asking another organization to perform a particular task.
It is likely that a great deal of public sector recruitment will focus on selling the organization’s mission. The manager’s job is to identify and recruit people who share the organization’s sense of mission. Managers must also obtain the resources needed to develop the organization’s incentive system. Motivation must be management’s primary mission. To keep good people, managers must provide an organizational environment that rewards innovation. Keeping good people and building an effective, entrepreneurial staff involves developing a sense of group cohesion and teamwork. The best way for managers to retain good people is to constantly communicate with members of their staff in order to develop a sophisticated understanding of their personalities and needs.
Dealing with poor performance requires a manager to first identify the poor performance and then encourage improved performance in order to correct the poor performance. However, it is important to know when to give up on a staff member. In this case, the manager then needs to get that person to leave the organization. It is the public manager’s job to develop a management scheme for working around inadequate staff members and obtaining productive effort from competent staffers.
One key responsibility of managers is to influence the behavior of their subordinates. Managers who ignore the job of staff development will substantially reduce their chances for success. Managers with entrepreneurial ambitions must pay particularly close attention to staff development. Brilliant strategies can fail miserably if executed by a weak and poorly motivated staff.
Week 4: Developing Effective Working Relationships
Chapter Summary
Effective management involves influencing people to behave in ways that help you implement your organizational strategy. Among the most important people for you to influence are the people you work for, the people you work alongside, and the people who work for you. Incentive tools and rewards will not go far if the interpersonal environment of an organization is negative or destructive. The first steps in establishing and nurturing positive working relationships that support a productive work environment are determining whose demands you should try to meet and then learning to listen carefully to these people.
The key to success in establishing effective working relationships is determining which demands should be met and in what order of priority. In some situations, managers will want to be responsive for reasons related to politics or enlightened self-interest, but most of their actions must be guided by the dictates of their strategy. Without a strategy, a manager has no basis for resisting the demands of superiors and staff and will have difficulty producing important organization outputs in a timely manner.
Effective managers must learn to listen effectively in order to gather important information and advice. Organizations operate informally as well as through a formal hierarchy. To get things done, managers must sometimes exchange favors and information. Managers’ effectiveness depends on their ability to get along with people. As nearly all public managers report to someone, it is important that managers know how to adjust to their boss’s style and figure out ways of accomplishing their organizational strategy within the constraints posed by that style.
It is important to treat a supervisor with respect and to treat his or her time as a precious commodity. When communicating with their boss, managers should be sure that the message fits within one of their organization’s critical missions. If managers disagree with their boss, sometimes it is best to suppress their views and fall in line, but sometimes they will need to discuss the disagreement with their boss and forge a compromise. The exception to this is ethical issues.
Part of the job of the effective manager is maintaining worker morale, and an important aspect of this is learning about the specific incentives that motivate individual staff members. Information about a staff’s preferences is far more important to successful management than understanding the status of financial or performance indicators. Motivating key staff members is the primary mission of management.
Informal communication with staff is important because it ensures that the message is individually tailored to the person a manager wishes to influence. It also projects intimacy and a sense of belonging to a privileged decision group and allows managers to reconsider requests in light of new information or direct feedback.
Public sector unions remain large and powerful in many places, so managers must be aware of the local labor environment. Good managers will try to build trust with the union(s) they are dealing with, but they may sometimes come in conflict with a union. In the event of a conflict, the manager should confront the issue as quickly and directly as possible.
One of the principal tasks of management is to mediate internal conflict. The most common sources of staff unhappiness seem to be mismanagement, management competition, poor working conditions, inadequate promotional potential or staff cutbacks, personality conflicts, and external or environmental conditions. The manager of an organization must monitor and maintain staff morale and work to alleviate staff unhappiness. The worst thing a manager can do about a situation the staff finds frustrating is to deny the legitimacy of their frustration. A manager cannot run an organization without setting direction, but managers should avoid ordering people around.
Many of the interpersonal communication skills that managers must learn within their own organizations often must be applied in a network context as well. Figuring out how to motivate network partners who may not be located in the same physical space or who have divergent organizational missions and goals is challenging. Network partners need to establish routines for organizational interaction and network management support. Just as with internal organizations, networks of organizations also may need to establish formal mechanisms whereby conflicts can be addressed and resolved.
Networks and other geographically dispersed organizational relationships seem to be easier to maintain in today’s world of electronic mail, but this tool should be used with some caution. While e-mail is easy and has its place, it is not a substitute for a phone call or a visit. In today’s increasingly global, 24/7, and networked organizational environment, face-to-face communication is a decreasing proportion of organizational communication. The same consideration applies to other forms of communication, including text messaging, video chat, and online chatting. Different messages require different media, and effective managers must calibrate their messages to the available media. Good working relationships can be damaged by inadequate communication. Given the importance of these rapid, mobile communication tools, the effective public manager should consider required training on the proper use of these tools.[supanova_question]
